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In the book of the Revelation of St. John the Divine, in the last chapter, should verses 18 and 19 be applied to this book alone or to the entire Bible?

Since the Book of Revelation was written (like all the other books of Scripture) as a separate work (at that time the New Testament did not yet exist as a whole, and the Old Testament had not yet been finalized either), these words should, in the strict sense, be understood as referring specifically to Revelation. After the canon of the New Testament was more or less finalized at the end of the 4th century AD, commentators began to apply them to the entire Christian Bible, but this is an indirect interpretation. Implicitly, it assumes that God in His sovereign design foresaw the final composition of the Bible – and indeed, there is nothing contradictory in this assumption...

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